Hacker Newsnew | past | comments | ask | show | jobs | submitlogin

> Drugs get developed because Americans will pay for them, then when the cost is mostly recouped (ie. a decade later), it finally becomes available in Europe.

Does anyone have any reputable cites for this please?



Sounds implausible, given the number of European pharma companies...


That doesn't follow at all; foreign drug companies sell plenty of drugs to Americans. The test of that assertion is to look at when drugs have been introduced to different markets, compared to R&D costs and the price the manufacturer got for them.




Guidelines | FAQ | Lists | API | Security | Legal | Apply to YC | Contact

Search: