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he suggested men might have a higher variance in their distribution, meaning more men in the tails at both sides

That's my understanding as well.

A professor I respect a lot presented his analysis of Summers' argument in a lecture I went to. This professor said that Summers' argument was statistically invalid, since the number of outliers in the tails of the IQ distribution was insufficient to tell if the distribution was in fact different at the tails between men and women.

It's fair to say that this rebuttal was not the one Summers got when he presented his idea to the faculty. :)



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