The point, I believe, is that the argument that the government has no legitimate power to regulate (non-government-issued-currency X) because in the past it chose not to regulate (non-government-issued-currency Y) in the same manner, despite several express Constitutional grants of power that speak to relevant powers of government is, well, completely bunk.
The government does not lose enumerated powers, or the ability to apply them in a particular manner, because it chose not to apply them in that manner at one time in the past in a similar circumstance.
You can, of course, make the argument that, power aside, the government should not use its enumerated powers in the way in question and should instead act as it did in the past case, but that takes more than waving your hand in the direction of the past case and asserting that it exists and therefore the restraint the government exercised then must be repeated, it takes actually making the case that that decision would be correct in the present circumstances.
Once government claims and exercises powers, be they legitimate or not, it's pretty much impossible to get government to scale back. History is a good guide as to the eventual fate of governments and nations that allow arbritary power to expand without limits.
Generation to generation, the natural tendency of a relative minority is to seek and maintain influence over the many. This is reflected in the continued advance of the power of the State over the rights and liberties of its citizens. Unlike our own political vocabulary, The Greeks had terms for this particular dynamic: hoi polloi and hoi oligoi.
> You can, of course, make the argument that, power aside, the government should not use its enumerated powers in the way in question and should instead act as it did in the past case
My larger argument is more fundamental. If power is asserted over rights often enough, there will be few, if any, actual rights left.
> My larger argument is more fundamental. If power is asserted over rights often enough, there will be few, if any, actual rights left.
Perhaps. But in this case you're not speaking of any actual 'right' that people had in the first place, so there's no right that would be eroded by SEC action here.
Why? dragonwriter managed to immediately pick up on what I meant. Would my opinion have been more plausible if I used 13-letter words and quoted Steinbeck instead?
If that "larger argument" is your point, how does it relate to the present issue specifically? How is he ruling here -- that bitcoin is "money" as that term is relevant to the Exchange Act of 1934 and thus sales of investments for bitcoins are subject to the Act, an "assertion of power" that erodes rights?
The government does not lose enumerated powers, or the ability to apply them in a particular manner, because it chose not to apply them in that manner at one time in the past in a similar circumstance.
You can, of course, make the argument that, power aside, the government should not use its enumerated powers in the way in question and should instead act as it did in the past case, but that takes more than waving your hand in the direction of the past case and asserting that it exists and therefore the restraint the government exercised then must be repeated, it takes actually making the case that that decision would be correct in the present circumstances.