What do you mean by "aesthetic", because I've already made the distinction between objective beauty and subjective taste. If my explanation is true, then it follows that there is an objective ordering of beauty (of at least two kinds: with respect to the same form/end, and between forms and ends). Then, there's the question of how competent someone is at recognizing this order. And finally, there are contingent factors that will affect expressed volitional preference as a function of factors like attainability or character flaws or whatever.

Making beauty a matter of purely subjective response makes it more mysterious and nonsensical, not less.

> Your opinion of other people’s tastes does not reflect on their taste — it reflects on yours.

How do you know this? You haven't demonstrated this claim. I've at least explained the basis for mine.

I claim that on the contrary, yes I can. I can claim that someone who thinks rape or murder are beautiful has objectively deranged tastes, because these acts are intrinsically ugly.