It's insane that somehow a 195k bill can change into a 34k one, without putting serious doubt on the validity of that final bill. How does this work in court? Are they going to claim their 34k bill is all correct while starting at 195k? Or would it be equally plausible if the debtor said "I've not received any of the care billed for, so I'm not paying"

They can't really claim their records are any kind of proof if apparently they now agree that 82% of it was wrong?