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It's been a worry for a long time, and it's always been false.

And therefore it will always be false?



The "TL;DR" doesn't cover it, but in the chapter the previous commenter references, he does explain why it's a logical fallacy. At the risk of putting something incomplete and/or incorrect, TL;DR summary of the explanation of the fallacy is that the productivity saved by automation is always available to fuel further production.




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